More evidence that islam is the religion of the Arabs only part four

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Dec 6, 2012 at 07:16

So you tell us our dear hava aka Ashley aka fatima aka atheist aka Eithian (sic) aka Samiri how come the Qur'an was revealed in Arabic? and how come Allah did not provide (and he could have done that) translations in all the languages of late antiquity be it Syriac or Hebrew or Armenian or Pahlavi or sanskrit or Greek or Egyptian/Coptic and he would have told all these nations that Muhammad was also sent as a rasul for all of them in their own languages you tell us unless Allah indeed meant what he said in Q14:4 that islam is the religion of the Arabs only and this is why he revealed it in a language that they can understand and to add insult to injury he tells us that the Qur'an is an Arabic book written bi-3arabi faseeh right?

This means that Islam is really the religion of the Arabs only and this is why we have an Arabic book and a so called Arab prophet whose umma was a bunch of Arabs right ya ayuha al-ghabi al-kabeer?

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