Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Jan 25, 2012 at 07:40
Oh Jesus the one that tells us that the Quranic disaster bism is an acronym as per Muhammad who is the source of the tradition right? so is that correct our dear Amin who lives among kuffar? A yes or no answer would do
For the readers: In the late antique Middle East as well the the Middle East in the first century CE Aramaic/Syriac was the language of the street and the common folk, Jews inculded, as well as the Church. Greek was the language of education. Hebrew was the language of the Synagogue.
Jesus' language would have been Syriac aka Aramaic oh and do you remember the eli eli lema sabakhtani? This is Syriac/Aramaic
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