Christian Arabic and wannabe Arabs

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Mar 17, 2012 at 09:47

Our dear Amin how come the Arabs do not call a book sifr inspite of the fact that one can find it in the Qur'an? and how come your masters the Arabs call a chapter juz' and not the Quranic sura? and why do they call a mountain jabal and not the Quranic word tur? let me help you because these are all foreign words and loan words from Syriac

Now back to Christian Arabic the fourth word from the right here is the correct Arabic word b'ism or in the name of

Oh and give this translation to one of your Arab masters and they will tell you that it is Christian Arabic and the clue is the word b'ism which is the correct way to write the word b'ism in Arabic and not your Allah's poor Arabic bism!

Oh the word bar in the verse? It is not an Arabic word but it is the word ibn in Syriac so this is a loan word from Syriac into the Arabic translation of this verse now do you get it?

_{^{Matthew 10:41}}

Arabic^{(i) 41} من يقبل نبيا باسم نبي فأجر نبي ياخذ. ومن يقبل بارا باسم بار فأجر بار ياخذ.

And here is the Syriac again

^{Matthew 10:41}

Peshitta^{(i) 41} ܡܢ ܕܡܩܒܠ ܢܒܝܐ ܒܫܡ ܢܒܝܐ ܐܓܪܐ ܕܢܒܝܐ ܢܤܒ ܘܡܢ ܕܡܩܒܠ ܙܕܝܩܐ ܒܫܡ ܙܕܝܩܐ ܐܓܪܐ ܕܙܕܝܩܐ ܢܤܒ ܀ 42 ܘܟܠ ܕܡܫܩܐ ܠܚܕ ܡܢ ܗܠܝܢ ܙܥܘܪܐ ܟܤܐ ܕܩܪܝܪܐ ܒܠܚܘܕ ܒܫܡܐ ܕܬܠܡܝܕܐ ܐܡܝܢ ܐܡܪ ܐܢܐ ܠܟܘܢ ܕܠܐ ܢܘܒܕ ܐܓܪܗ

So ... the Syrians and the Copts use the word sifr for book in their Arabic translation of Bible the word book and the source is Syriac because the word is not even used by your Arab masters

Now you tell us why the delusions?

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