Submitted by Infidel (Canada), Feb 23, 2009 at 20:51
In your article you state the following: "The Koran states that women are completely equal to men in the sight of God, and that both men and women will be rewarded soley according to their deeds and not due to any sort of preference for one gender over the other". I responded by quoting from the Qur'an(Koran), Sura2, Aya282 and Sura4, Aya3, that according to Islam, a man is equal to two women, and a man can have at least 4 wives.
Therefore your statement from the Koran is not true. Muslims believe that a man can have more than one wife. And since I'm not a Muslim, why do you suggest that I agree with a man having more than one wife? By the way, I don't and never have. And why does that make me of a pagan religion? And lastly, how did I prove your point? By quoting from the Qur'an?
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