Submitted by Plato (India), Apr 29, 2009 at 07:22
Nozzi, you write:
>>A person might approach you due to his ignorance that the moon is indeed three dimensions and argue with you that the moon is flat without reading any public medias and books/megazines and etc. As he is ignorant that the moon is in three dimensions, he argues that the moon is flat.<<
This is exactly what Muhammad did with the semi-literate superstitious people of seventh century Arabia. Muhammad approached the people of Arabia who were ignorant of the fact that the Universe does not need a creator to come into existence (just as Muhammad claimed that Allah is self-existent so is the universe). These Arabs living in ancient times did not know about the later discoveries of science and philosophy which easily disproves the existence of a creator who sends down messengers and gets angry, jealous and is as boastful as any tin-pot earthly dictator. So as the Arab is ignorant about there being no necessity for a god like Allah, Muhammad was able to convince them that Allah had to exist.
>>Would his persistence in supporting that the moon is flat as a result of his belief and argument that it is flat?<<
Would Muhammad's persistence in claiming that Allah does exist result in the existence of Allah?
>>The same as Allah. Allah is really existent. Even if non-muslims provide proves that Allah is non-existent and that cannot reject the fact that Allah is existent.<<
Despite being given all proofs for the moon being three-dimensional the idiots continued to argue the moon is flat. By saying even if non-Muslims prove to you that Allah is non-existent are you any different from those ignoramuses who claim the moon is flat? I feel sorry for you Nozzi. Islam has really sozzled your mind.
Regards Plato
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