Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), May 9, 2021 at 17:43
You must be aware that the Qur'an says that, and I'm paraphrasing, Muhammad is not the father of any man! Now check the following and this would help you with the "reading list" that I provided you in understanding what Surat al-Kawthar is all about:
1. google the "sons of Muhammad" and you will find that the tradition tells us that Muhammad's Kunya was: Abu al-Qasim or the father of Qasim! Who is Qasim? No one has a clue.
2. Mariyya al-Qibtiyya, who is supposed to be the subject of the first few Ayat of Surat al-Tahrim, had a boy who is the son of Muhammad and his name in Ibrahim and as expected by the biggest literary fraud in human history and that is the Islamic Historical Tradition, Ibrahim died in 636 AD. You expect that the son of Muhammad would become the first Khalifa Right? Well, this did not happen and Othman was selected in 632 AD as the first Khalifa! I suspect that this Ibrahim never existed otherwise he would have been the first Khalifa. Remember that in the ancient Middle East there was always children that were kings!
3. We are also told that Muhammad had two other sons: Tahir and Tayb! Who on earth are they? No one has a clue!
Do you see how much this Chapter of the Qur'an is responsible for so much nonsense?
4. Now, if you are interested in Understanding the Aramaic/Syriac layer of this chapter you can check Mana Dictionary and it is Syriac/Arabic
Here is a link
https://archive.org/details/SyriacArabicDictionary
5. Here is the meaning of the word Abtar; Man with no progeny (and in the case of the Arabs he did not have boys as children! and guess why? Because he is "cut."
Here check this
https://www.almaany.com/ar/dict/ar-ar/%D8%B1%D8%AC%D9%84-%D8%A3%D8%A8%D8%AA%D8%B1/
PS: I just do not get it: How can Pakistanis and Indian Muslim follow a religion that is very much an Arab/Middle Eastern religion? I just do not get it
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