Submitted by A very concerned reader (Australia), May 10, 2021 at 16:37
Thank you so much, Dhimmi No More. Thanks for taking the time to find this post.
Of course, the Qur'an must be an excellent book to find examples of Aramaic/Syriac metathesis.
It happens with all ancient languages. We have plenty of examples in the Romances languages (languages that come from Latin). Denying this linguistic/phonological process is denying how languages have evolved and from where we part.
Very interesting phenomenon, Dhimmi No More. Thank you for making me aware of its existence in the Qur'an. Now I understand perfectly why they lie about it when translating and why there's a need to omit the authentic origin of some words which are more ingrained in the Qur'an than they would like.
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