Submitted by Hounddog (United States), Sep 30, 2010 at 20:55
Is it possible just for the sake of arguement that Mohammed visted Medina and became curious about God and was told by some intellectual Jews that lived there at the time about God and Mohammed wondered off and tried to condense what he was taught and what he had taken of Hebrew text (had been around about 2500 years) into Arabic which had only been a language for about two hundred years and in the end got everything upside down so to speak?
Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".