Submitted by Mohamad Nozzi (Singapore), May 19, 2009 at 08:25
In order to prove that the Holy Quran supports that all muslims except those that believe in Allah and the Last Day are unclean, I quote all the verses as below for your verification (As Allah treats all non-muslims except those that believe in Allah and the Last Day, do you think we, muslims, permit any muslims to have sex or marriage with non-muslims? Absolutely no!):
Quran 6:125, "Therefore (for) whomsoever Allah intends that He would guide him aright, He expands his breast for Islam, and (for) whomsoever He intends that He should cause him to err, He makes his breast strait and narrow as though he were ascending upwards; thus does Allah lay uncleanness on those who do not believe."
Quran 9:28, "O you who believe! the idolaters are nothing but unclean, so they shall not approach the Sacred Mosque after this year; and if you fear poverty then Allah will enrich you out of His grace if He please; surely Allah is Knowing Wise."
Quran 9:95, "They will swear to you by Allah when you return to them so that you may turn aside from them; so do turn aside from them; surely they are unclean and their abode is hell; a recompense for what they earned."
Quran 10:100, " And it is not for a soul to believe except by Allah's permission; and He casts uncleanness on those who will not understand. "
Quran 22:30, "That (shall be so); and whoever respects the sacred ordinances of Allah, it is better for him with his Lord; and the cattle are made lawful for you, except that which is recited to you, therefore avoid the uncleanness of the idols and avoid false words,"
As mentioned above that Allah warns us that the pagans are unclean and so, it proves the fact that the slave woman that you did mention that had associated with Muhammad could be a lie in the past. This is due to many pagans were against Muhammad and his followers and there is a possibility that the one that wrote this as a history might be created rumour to spoilt the morality of Muhammad. If the history is true, then it could be that the so-called, slave woman should be a muslim woman to whom he was associating with. Another alternative reason for Muhammad to associate with that slave might be that they had been accepted by themselves to be husband and wife and so, it should be legal. This is due to Muslims could have even the maximum of four wives. In any assumptions of the above, we could come to the conclusion that that slave must be a muslim even though it does not mention in the history since Muhammad that is well respected could not have offended the laws of Allah to associate with the unclean, non-muslim slave.
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