Submitted by Plato (India), May 26, 2009 at 12:33
Nozzi you wrote:
>>I quote from Malk's Muwata, Book #2, Hadith 2.6.32 that there were muslim slaves at the time when Muhammad began his mission here.<<
The Muslim slaves would be the non-believing slaves who converted as there would have been no Muslims elsewhere at this early stage of Islam. The incident I quoted about Ali raping a captive girl would certainly be a case of violating a non-Muslim girl. However, would raping a helpless Muslim girl make the incident any less horrible because the slave happened to be "clean" and "halal"?
Regards
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