Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Apr 13, 2021 at 14:51
You wrote:
>In inquiring about how resurrection fits into Islamic theology, how does the differing parts of the text from Medina to Mecca relate about an incident that happened in Jerusalem, presuming that Jerusalem is indeed in the text, whether of Medina or Mecca origination?
The words Qur'an (Qeryana), Allah (Alaha/Allah), Muhammad (and not the correct Arabic Mahmoud) are really clues that this ܩܪܝܢܐ or Qeryana (Qur'an) is a كتاب وعظ or Kitab Wa'z (Christian Lectionary) and composed in a Judeo-Christian milieu where the Christ is Abd Allah, and not Muhammad, as it says in the Qur'an and that we very well have Muhammad 1 or the Christ and Muhammad 2 or Muhammad of the "Arabic" Qur'an created by the Abbasids and their Persian Mufasereen (Luxenberg)!
This means that we are detaching the Qur'an from Muhammad and Islam from al-Hijaz and move Islam and its origin way up north to Mesopotamia/Levant where it really belongs (John Wansbrough).
However, the most important achievement of Wansbrough's work is that he proved that Islam is part of the Judeo-Christian tradition.
I suggest that you read Christoph Luxenberg: "The Inscriptions of al-Masjid al-Aqsa" and John Wansbrough: "Sectarian Milieu."
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