Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Apr 30, 2021 at 07:10
> If it cannot be sufficiently defined (transliteration vs translation), then does the 'black swan' analogy become useful in the words that defy understanding (understanding dark sentences)?
Fair enough. Then what should be your advise to Mr. Khattab to do with regard to his "translation" of Surat al-Baqara:2 and Surat al-Ikhlas:2? And remember that al-Mufasereen tell us that al-Tarjama (translation) is not Tafsir (exegesis).
Hint: al-Mufasereen tell us to write the Arabic word using the alphabet of another language!!
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