Submitted by Plato (India), May 17, 2009 at 01:44
Nozzi, you write:
>>You twist the words very fast. You mention that Muhamma have to do dawa prior to his slaughtering. Show me the proof that Muhammad did dawa before slaughtering.<<
Nozzi, remember writing these comments:
However, I have browsed through the summary of Cambridge History of Islam, it is mentioned that Prophet Muhammad preached the message of Allah to Meccans ever since year 610 http://www.danielpipes.org/comments/154961
>>You have abused the history of Islam. You simply use the year 624 to comment that Muslims were the first to start fighting. However, you did not support the truth that Muhammad began to preach to the Meccans in year 610. They were indeed persecution from Meccans to Muhammad and his followers and this occurred just after year 610 and right before year 624.. As a result of the persecution from Meccans, Muhammad began to ambush and fought against the Meccans as you have mentioned for the year 624.<< http://www.danielpipes.org/comments/154991
You have given the proof yourself in your own posts. Do you need any further proof?
Muhammad began slaughtering people only after he went to Medina. While he was in Mecca all he did was do 'dawa', preach. Now have you decided to go back on all that you have claimed and slaughtering people even before calling them to Allah?
Regards
Plato
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